📢 KPSC Notification Category 083/2026 is live — last date to apply: 02 Sep 2026. Read full notification →
Kerala PSC · Land Use Department · Category 083/2026

Agricultural Assistant Grade II — everything you need in one place

Notification, eligibility, syllabus, exam pattern, previous question papers with answer keys, cutoff marks and salary details for the Land Use Department's Agricultural Assistant Grade II recruitment — built by Agriguru, the only dedicated Malayalam agriculture-exam platform.

📌 Category:  083/2026 💰 Pay:  ₹27,900–63,700 🗓️ Last date:  02 Sep 2026 🧑‍🌾 Vacancies:  2
Official Gazette · Category 083/2026

Notification

Gazette date 30.07.2026. Applications are invited online only, through One Time Registration (OTR) on the official KPSC website.

Category No.083/2026
DepartmentLand Use Department
Name of postAgricultural Assistant Gr. II
Scale of pay₹27,900 – 63,700/-
Number of vacancies2 (Two)
Method of appointmentDirect Recruitment
Age limit18–40 (born between 02.01.1986 and 01.01.2008, both dates included), with usual relaxation for SC/ST and other backward communities
QualificationDiploma in Agricultural Science (KAU) / VHSC in Agriculture / B.Voc. Agriculture / B.Sc. Agriculture
Probation2 years on duty within a continuous period of 3 years
Departmental testManual of Office Procedure & Account Test (Lower or Higher), within probation
Application feeNone
Gazette date30.07.2026
Last date to apply02.09.2026 (Wednesday, up to 12.00 midnight)
Apply atwww.keralapsc.gov.in

How to apply

  1. Register once via One Time Registration (OTR) on keralapsc.gov.in.
  2. Log in to your profile with your User-ID and password.
  3. Click "Apply Now" on the Category 083/2026 notification link.
  4. Upload a photo taken within the last 6 months if registering for the first time (valid for 10 years once accepted).
  5. Verify all profile details before final submission — applications cannot be edited after the last date.
  6. Keep a printout/soft copy of your submitted application for future reference.

📄 You can download the official notification here: Download Notification PDF (Cat 083/2026) →

Category 083/2026

Eligibility

Two things decide whether you can apply: your age and your qualification.

🎂 Age limit

General18–40 years — born between 02.01.1986 and 01.01.2008
SC / STUsual age relaxation applies
Other Backward CommunitiesUsual age relaxation applies

🎓 Educational qualification

Any one of the following is accepted:

  1. Diploma in Agricultural Science from Kerala Agricultural University (KAU), or its recognised equivalent — the primary qualification named in the notification.
  2. Vocational Higher Secondary Certificate (VHSC) in Agriculture — as per G.O.(P) No. 11/2025/P&EA dated 08.09.2025.
  3. B.Voc. in Agriculture — accepted as an equivalent/higher qualification.
  4. B.Sc. in Agriculture — accepted as an equivalent/higher qualification.
Equivalent & higher qualifications also accepted The notification names the Diploma/VHSC explicitly, but also accepts qualifications recognised by Government executive/standing orders as equivalent, and higher qualifications that presuppose the prescribed one (such as B.Voc./B.Sc. Agriculture). Proof must be produced when the Commission asks for it — if in doubt, verify with KPSC before applying.

Quick checklist before you apply

100 Marks · 10 Modules

Syllabus

Ten modules, 100 marks total. Tap each module to expand the full topic list.

Module 1 — Crop Production Principles & Practices10 marks
Agronomic classification of crops (cereals, pulses, millets, oilseeds, tuber crops, fruits, vegetables, spices, plantation crops, medicinal & aromatic plants, fibre crops, sugar crops, fodder crops, narcotic crops, green manure crops). Elements of crop production, yield-contributing characters, harvest index. Tillage & tilth, primary/secondary tillage implements. Seeds and sowing methods, seed drills, transplanting. Soil fertility vs productivity, organic manures, bio-fertilizers, fertilizer calculation for major crops.

Farming systems: cropping patterns, multiple/inter/sequential/relay/mixed cropping, Kerala's agro-climatic zones, integrated farming (mushroom, vermicompost, azolla, livestock, poultry, aquaculture, biogas), organic farming, sustainable agriculture, biodynamic/natural farming/permaculture, precision farming, dry farming and agro-forestry.

Watershed management: land use capability classification, slope measurement, contour bunds, soil & water conservation structures, water harvesting, ground water recharge, watershed development planning.
Module 2 — Agrometeorology5 marks
Agricultural meteorology, weather vs climate, microclimate, meteorological instruments, automated weather stations, weather forecasting. Atmosphere composition, global warming, climate change. Drought types and disaster management/mitigation.

Agricultural seasons: crop seasons in India and Kerala, Njattuvela, monsoons in Kerala, climate change adaptation, mitigation and vulnerability.
Module 3 — Soil Health and Fertility Management10 marks
Fundamentals of soil: origin, rocks and minerals, weathering, soil formation and profile development, physical/chemical/biological properties, soil colloids, soil taxonomy and classification, remote sensing & GIS, soils of Kerala and India, soil acidity/salinity/alkalinity.

Soil erosion & conservation: types of erosion, agronomic and mechanical conservation measures, water harvesting techniques.

Engineering conservation measures: percolation pits, contour bunding, terracing, check dams, gabions.

Plant nutrition: essential/beneficial elements, N-P-K deficiency & toxicity, manures & fertilizers classification, integrated nutrient management, soil testing, nutrient cycles, soil health card, KAU Fertulator.

Tillage, fertilizers & manures, organic nutrient management: panchagavya, jeevamruth, biofertilizers, DRIS method.
Module 4 — Field Crops and Production Practices10 marks
Rice: climate, soil, varieties, seed rate, nursery types (wet/dry/dapog), Kole, Kuttanad, Pokkali, Kaipad cultivation, SRI technique, mechanization, cereals & millets (maize, sorghum, barley, oats).

Tapioca: mini-sett propagation, planting, intercropping, value addition, biopesticides from tapioca.

Fodder crops: Guinea grass, Hybrid Napier, Congo Signal Grass, Subabul, Agathi, Stylo, silage/haylage.

Other crops: sugarcane, sugar beet, cotton, jute, sweet potato, potato, yams, pulses (cowpea, green gram, horse gram, black gram, red gram, chickpea, soybean), oilseeds (groundnut, sesamum, sunflower).
Module 5 — Horticulture Crops and Production Practices15 marks
Vegetables: solanaceous (brinjal, tomato, chilli), cucurbits (bitter gourd, snake gourd, bottle gourd, ash gourd, pumpkin), cool-season vegetables (carrot, cabbage, cauliflower), amaranthus/bhindi/cowpea, kitchen garden, protected cultivation.

Plantation crops: coconut, areca nut, oil palm, rubber, cashew, tea, coffee, cocoa — botany, varieties, cultivation, pests/diseases, processing.

Spices, medicinal & aromatic plants: pepper, betel vine, ginger, turmeric, cardamom, nutmeg, cinnamon, clove, vanilla, lemon grass, palmarosa, citronella, vetiver.

Fruit culture: mango, banana (incl. GI varieties), pineapple, papaya, jack, sapota, grapes, citrus, minor tropical & temperate fruits.

Commercial floriculture & ornamental gardening: orchids, anthuriums, rose, jasmine, gerbera, chrysanthemum, gladiolus, landscape design, propagation methods.

Nursery techniques & tissue culture: nursery structures, potting, layering, budding, grafting, tissue culture of banana & pineapple.

Seed production: classes of quality seed, seed certification, hybrid rice seed production, seed testing.
Module 6 — Plant Breeding & Plant Physiology10 marks
Genetics & plant breeding: basic genetics, heredity, self/cross-pollinated crop breeding techniques, hybridization, mass/pedigree/backcross selection, heterosis, mutation & polyploidy breeding, biotechnology & bioinformatics, GI/IPR laws.

Plant physiology: water/solute transport, photosynthesis, respiration, plant defense, growth regulators (auxin, gibberellin, cytokinin, ethylene, ABA), seed physiology, herbicide physiology, water deficit/salinity/temperature stress management.
Module 7 — Crop Health Management18 marks
Crop pest management: insect classification, economic insects (honey bees, sericulture), pests of cereals/plantation crops/fruits/vegetables/spices, IPM techniques, bio-pesticides, pesticide classification, pheromones, E-Crop Doctor.

Plant disease management: plant pathology basics, fungal/bacterial/viral disease characters, diseases of major crops (rice, vegetables, plantation crops, spices, fruits), biocontrol agents (Trichoderma, Pseudomonas fluorescens), mushroom cultivation.

Weed management: weed classification, crop-weed competition, mechanical/cultural/biological/chemical/IWM control, herbicide classification, weed management in rice/coconut/banana/vegetables.
Module 8 — Agro-machinery, Power & Irrigation10 marks
Primary/secondary tillage implements, sowing & transplanting machines, rice transplanters, sprayers, harvesters, post-harvest processing of rice.

Work, power & energy concepts, renewable energy, IC engines, tractors, power tillers, biogas, solar energy fundamentals.

Irrigation: surface/subsurface/micro irrigation (drip, sprinkler, mist, bubbler, pivot), fertigation, chemigation, drainage, rainwater harvesting, irrigation scheduling (IW/CPE ratio, evapotranspiration).
Module 9 — Agricultural Extension and Technology Transfer7 marks
Agricultural development milestones in India, institutions (KVK, ATIC, ATMA, VFPCK, AHADS), five-year plans, diffusion & adoption of innovations, ITK, extension communication methods, digital/social media in TOT, agripreneurship, farm & photo journalism, cyber extension, functions of Kerala Agricultural University.
Module 10 — Agricultural Production Economics and Marketing5 marks
Mixed economy, rural challenges (land reforms, employment, NABARD, rural finance), agricultural production factors (land, labour, capital), farm management, marketing scope & problems, Agmark grading, marketing channels (regulated markets, NAFED, e-NAM), support agencies (FCI, CWC, SWC), input marketing.
Note from the syllabus document Apart from the topics listed above, questions from other topics prescribed for the educational qualification of the post may also appear in the question paper. There is no undertaking that all the topics above will be covered.
OMR-based objective test

Exam Pattern

A single OMR-based objective test covering the full syllabus, with negative marking.

100

Questions

💯

100

Maximum marks

✔️

+1

Per correct answer

−0.33

Per wrong answer

Question typeMultiple choice (4 options, 1 correct)
Total questions100
Maximum marks100
Marking for correct answer+1 mark
Negative marking−0.33 mark for each wrong answer
Unattempted questionsNo negative mark
Answer sheetOMR sheet, blue/black ball point pen
Fully solved · Official answer keys

Previous Question Papers

100 questions each, correct answer highlighted in green — from the official KPSC provisional answer keys.

Question Code 126/24 — Agricultural Assistant Grade II, Category 528/2023 & 529/2023 100 questions, 100 marks, 90 minutes. Question Booklet Alpha Code A. Test held 24-Sep-2024.
1. Select the crop suitable for ratoon cropping.
  • A) Banana
  • B) Groundnut
  • C) Coconut
  • D) Tapioca
2. Pick out bulky organic manure from the following:
  • A) Bone meal
  • B) Vermicompost
  • C) Groundnut cake
  • D) None of the above
3. Acidic soils can be reclaimed by using: i. Ground limestone ii. Burnt lime iii. Gypsum iv. Hydrated lime
  • A) i, ii and iv
  • B) i, ii and iii
  • C) ii, iii and iv
  • D) i, iii and iv
4. Which of the following soil is an alkaline soil found in Chittur areas of Palakkad district?
  • A) Red loam
  • B) Black cotton soil
  • C) Laterite
  • D) Brown hydromorphic soil
5. Calculate the quantity of urea required for 100 numbers of 25 years old coconut palms under average management.
  • A) 64 kg
  • B) 84 kg
  • C) 94 kg
  • D) 74 kg
6. Pick out the symbiotic bacteria used as biofertilizer in leguminous plants.
  • A) Azotobacter
  • B) Azospirillum
  • C) Azolla
  • D) Rhizobium
7. Which of the following is a primary tillage implement?
  • A) Disc harrow
  • B) Wooden plough
  • C) Cultivator
  • D) None of the above
8. Which of the following are agronomic measures of water conservation? i. Mixed cropping ii. Contour bunding iii. Bench terracing iv. Cover cropping
  • A) i and iii
  • B) ii and iv
  • C) i and iv
  • D) i, ii and iv
9. Any permeable textile material used with soil, rock or earth to increase stability and decrease wind and water erosion is called
  • A) Gabions
  • B) Check dams
  • C) Geotextiles
  • D) None of the above
10. Growing different types of crops with different spatial orientation and height on the same piece of land at the same time is known as
  • A) Intercropping
  • B) Strip cropping
  • C) Contour farming
  • D) None of the above
11. Which statement(s) is/are correct about agricultural seasons of Kerala? i. Three main seasons ii. Virippu: April-May to Sept-Oct iii. Mundakan: Dec-Jan to March-April iv. Punja coincides with SW monsoon
  • A) Only i and iii
  • B) Only i and iv
  • C) Only i and ii
  • D) All the above
12. Approximate concentration of Carbon dioxide in Earth's atmosphere (ppm)?
  • A) 200-250 ppm
  • B) 350-450 ppm
  • C) 450-500 ppm
  • D) 550-600 ppm
13. Which gas has the highest Global Warming Potential (GWP) over 100 years?
  • A) CO₂
  • B) N₂O
  • C) CH₄
  • D) Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF₆)
14. International agreement limiting Global Warming to below 2°C, pursuing 1.5°C?
  • A) Kyoto protocol
  • B) Paris agreement
  • C) Copenhagen accord
  • D) Lima declaration
15. Instrument used to measure solar energy received by Earth's surface?
  • A) Ceilometer
  • B) Pyranometer
  • C) Luxmeter
  • D) Radiosonde
16. Correct statement(s) about Kissan Credit Card (KCC) scheme by NABARD? i. Collateral-free credit up to 5 lakh ii. Interest 4% p.a. iii. 5-year repayment iv. RRBs also implement KCC
  • A) Only i and iii
  • B) Only ii and iv
  • C) Only i and ii
  • D) Only iii and iv
17. Primary objective of the AGMARK certification mark in India?
  • A) Promote export
  • B) Ensure quality
  • C) Regulate price
  • D) All the above
18. Correct statement(s) about State Warehousing Corporation? i. Only notified commodities accepted ii. Enables better price iii. Scientific storage iv. Warehouse receipt with quality/value/insurance
  • A) Only iii and iv
  • B) Only i and ii
  • C) Only ii, iii and iv
  • D) All statements correct
19. Lead agency implementing e-NAM under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare?
  • A) FCI
  • B) SFAC
  • C) CACP
  • D) NAFED
20. Term for decrease in purchasing power of money due to rising general price level?
  • A) Inflation
  • B) Deflation
  • C) Stagflation
  • D) Hyperinflation
21. Hydrosphere accounts for ______ percent of the earth's mass.
  • A) 6.91
  • B) 71.3
  • C) 15.2
  • D) 25.8
22. Most abundant mineral in the earth's crust
  • A) Malachite
  • B) Tourmaline
  • C) Feldspar
  • D) Pyrite
23. About universal soil loss equation A = RKLSCP: i. A=Soil loss/unit area, R=Rainfall factor ii. A=Soil loss/unit area, K=Soil erodibility factor iii. L=Slope length factor, C=Clay factor
  • A) Only i and ii
  • B) Only i and iii
  • C) Only ii and iii
  • D) All of the above
24. Kerala is divided into ______ agroecological zones.
  • A) 3
  • B) 5
  • C) 7
  • D) 10
25. Neutralising value of CaCO₃ is
  • A) 179
  • B) 197
  • C) 100
  • D) 136
26. Correctly matched? i. Sandstone-Quartzite ii. Shale-slate iii. Limestone-Marble iv. Granite-Gneiss
  • A) i only
  • B) i and ii
  • C) i and iii
  • D) All the above
27. Biofertilizer recommended for wetland rice cultivation.
  • A) Rhizobium
  • B) Azolla
  • C) VAM
  • D) Azotobacter
28. Who is known as Father of Soil Science?
  • A) Dokuchev
  • B) Joffy
  • C) Hillgard
  • D) Liebig
29. Agronomic measure of soil and water conservation?
  • A) Basin listing
  • B) Subsoiling
  • C) Zero tillage
  • D) Contour bunding
30. Application software by KAU for easy fertilizer calculation
  • A) KAU FERTULATOR
  • B) FERTILISER CALCULATOR
  • C) NPK FERTILISER CALCULATOR
  • D) FERTISOLVER
31. Lime required for cultivating rice in 1 acre
  • A) 250 kg
  • B) 240 kg
  • C) 300 kg
  • D) 700 kg
32. IPDM (Integrated Pest and Disease Management) includes
  • A) Chemical methods
  • B) Physical methods
  • C) Biological methods
  • D) All the above
33. Ideal cowpea variety grown as companion crop with Tapioca
  • A) PTB-1
  • B) New Era
  • C) V-26
  • D) Pournami
34. Red rot disease in Sugarcane mainly transmitted through
  • A) Infected setts
  • B) Flowing water
  • C) Both infected setts and flowing water
  • D) Soil
35. NOT a biopesticide developed from Tapioca
  • A) Bhagya
  • B) Nanma
  • C) Menma
  • D) Shreya
36. To break seed dormancy in Subabul which treatment is practised?
  • A) Dipping in con. HCl + hot water
  • B) Dipping in con. H₂SO₄ + hot water
  • C) Dipping in hot water
  • D) Dipping in con. HCl
37. Nursery area required for minisetts to plant 1 hectare of Tapioca
  • A) One acre
  • B) 220 m²
  • C) 500 m²
  • D) 400 m²
38. If N:P₂O₅:K₂O dosage for sweet potato is 75:50:50 kg/Ha, urea required for 1 ha?
  • A) 163 kg
  • B) 200 kg
  • C) 204 kg
  • D) 150 kg
39. System of Rice cultivation with 70:30 non-photosensitive:photosensitive seed mix sown during virippu
  • A) Pokkali
  • B) Onattukara
  • C) Kaipad
  • D) Kuttumundakan
40. NOT correct about Hybrid Napier grass?
  • A) Also known as elephant grass
  • B) Grows throughout the year in tropics
  • C) Can be intercropped with legumes
  • D) Also known as buffalo grass
41. Recommended seed rate for Tomato
  • A) 450 g/ha
  • B) 500 g/ha
  • C) 400 g/ha
  • D) 350 g/ha
42. Apricot is a variety of
  • A) Vanilla
  • B) Marigold
  • C) Carrot
  • D) Garlic
43. Ethephon concentration for uniform flowering in pineapple (aqueous solution)
  • A) 2.5 ppm
  • B) 0.25 ppm
  • C) 250 ppm
  • D) 25 ppm
44. Common surface disinfectant for explants in tissue culture
  • A) Sodium hydrochlorite
  • B) Potassium hypochlorite
  • C) Magnesium hypochlorite
  • D) Calcium hypochlorite
45. Tolerable light level in tropics for better growth of Anthurium
  • A) 10-20%
  • B) 30-40%
  • C) 40-50%
  • D) 20-30%
46. Viscous brown fluid oozing with chewed fibrous matter through holes in coconut trees indicates
  • A) Coreid bug
  • B) Rhinoceros beetle
  • C) Red Palm Weevil
  • D) Cockchafer beetle
47. General nutrient dosage recommendation for pepper
  • A) 50:50:150 N:P₂O₅:K₂O g/vine/year
  • B) 50:150:150
  • C) 50:50:50
  • D) 150:150:150
48. Recommended spacing for cucumber
  • A) 2m×2m
  • B) 2m×1.5m
  • C) 1.5m×2m
  • D) 1.5m×1.5m
49. Most common propagation method in Guava
  • A) Simple layering
  • B) Trench layering
  • C) Compound layering
  • D) Air layering
50. Queen of Spices
  • A) Pepper
  • B) Clove
  • C) Cardamom
  • D) Cinnamon
51. Breaking/scratching/softening seed covering to make it permeable to water
  • A) Scarification
  • B) Stratification
  • C) Dormancy
  • D) Imbibition
52. Yield potential of Bittergourd
  • A) 50-100 q/hac
  • B) 100-140 q/hac
  • C) 150-200 q/hac
  • D) 200-250 q/hac
53. CTC in Tea refers to
  • A) Cut Tear and Curl
  • B) Cut Tear and Crush
  • C) Curl Tear and Crush
  • D) Crush Tear and Curl
54. Mohitnagar is a variety of
  • A) Coconut
  • B) Arecanut
  • C) Oil Palm
  • D) Cocoa
55. Rain shelter variety of Tomato
  • A) Akshaya
  • B) Adithya
  • C) Ananya
  • D) Anjana
56. NOT true about C4 plants? i. More efficient photosynthesis ii. Kranz anatomy iii. Oats/Rye are C4 examples
  • A) Only i and ii
  • B) Only iii
  • C) Only i and iii
  • D) Only ii
57. True about Ethylene? i. Induces cell elongation ii. Synchronising fruit set in pineapple iii. Hastens fruit ripening
  • A) Only i and ii
  • B) Only ii and iii
  • C) Only i and iii
  • D) All correct
58. False statement?
  • A) Pollen release/stigma receptivity synchronized for cross-pollination
  • B) Maize is monoecious
  • C) Continued self pollination → inbreeding depression
  • D) Dioecy prevents Autogamy and Geitonogamy
59. True about Artificial Hybridisation? i. Major crop improvement approach ii. Bisexual female flower needs no emasculation iii. Emasculation/bagging protect from contamination
  • A) Only i and ii
  • B) Only ii and iii
  • C) Only i and iii
  • D) All correct
60. Novel strategy to prevent nematode Meloidogyne incognita infestation on tobacco roots
  • A) Recombinant DNA technology
  • B) RNA interference (RNAi)
  • C) Artificial Hybridisation
  • D) PCR
61. True about Human Genome Project (HGP)? i. 13-year project from 1990 ii. Goal to identify ~20,000-25,000 genes iii. Bioinformatics used extensively
  • A) Only i and ii
  • B) Only i
  • C) Only ii and iii
  • D) All the above
62. Poor availability of ___ and high ___ around roots causes flood injury
  • A) O₂, CO₂
  • B) CO₂, O₂
  • C) CO₂, N
  • D) Cl, CO₂
63. True about NBPGR? i. Nodal org for plant genetic resources ii. = National Board for Plant Genetic Resources iii. Regional station at Thrissur
  • A) Only i and ii
  • B) Only ii and iii
  • C) Only i and iii
  • D) All correct
64. Soil water held very tightly, unavailable to plant roots
  • A) Gravitational water
  • B) Capillary water
  • C) Hygroscopic water
  • D) None of the above
65. Loss/exudation of water as liquid droplets from leaves
  • A) Evaporation
  • B) Transpiration
  • C) Osmosis
  • D) Guttation
66. Example of Insecticide
  • A) Acephate
  • B) Benomyl
  • C) Carbendazim
  • D) Mancozeb
67. Bio-agent for controlling Parthenium hysterophorus
  • A) Bactra verutana
  • B) Zygogramma bicolorata
  • C) Chrysolira
  • D) Flea beetle
68. Silver shoot is caused by
  • A) Gall midge
  • B) Gundhi bug
  • C) Thrips
  • D) Aphid
69. Roundup herbicide trade name of
  • A) Butachlor
  • B) Oxyfluorfen
  • C) 2,4-D
  • D) Glyphosate
70. Perennial weed producing underground rhizomes
  • A) Lantana camera
  • B) Cynodon dactylon
  • C) Mikania micrantha
  • D) Echinochloa colona
71. A mycoherbicide is
  • A) Bt
  • B) Collego
  • C) NPV
  • D) Zygogramma
72. Khaira disease of paddy due to deficiency of
  • A) Boron
  • B) Zinc
  • C) Calcium
  • D) Magnesium
73. NOT an edible mushroom
  • A) Pleurotus sps.
  • B) Volvariella sps.
  • C) Calocybe sps.
  • D) Amanita sps.
74. Does NOT fix Nitrogen
  • A) Rhizobium
  • B) Trichoderma
  • C) Acetobacter
  • D) Azospirillum
75. Black heart is a physiological disorder of
  • A) Tomato
  • B) Chilli
  • C) Potato
  • D) Cabbage
76. Striga is included in
  • A) Fungi
  • B) Mycoplasma-like organisms
  • C) Phanerogamic plant parasite
  • D) Bacteria
77. Muscardine disease of silkworm caused by
  • A) Bombyx mori Densonucleosis
  • B) Bacillus thuringiensis
  • C) Beauveria bassiana
  • D) None of these
78. A Copper based fungicide is
  • A) Fytolan 50W
  • B) Zineb 75
  • C) Dithane M-45
  • D) Captan 75% WP
79. Forewings of bugs is called
  • A) Elytra
  • B) Membraneous
  • C) Halteres
  • D) Hemelytra
80. Lowest population density causing economic damage is known as
  • A) GEP
  • B) ETL
  • C) DB
  • D) EIL
81. Only larva can cause damage in case of
  • A) Red flour beetle
  • B) Rice weevil
  • C) Khapra beetle
  • D) Rice moth
82. Used as Rodenticide
  • A) Zinc Chloride
  • B) Zinc Sulphide
  • C) Zinc Phosphide
  • D) Zinc Bromide
83. Parasitoid that suppressed Papaya Mealy bug population in Kerala
  • A) Acerophagus sps.
  • B) Trichopoda sps.
  • C) Trichogramma sps.
  • D) Anagyrus sps.
84. Function(s) of Cultivators? i. Stirring/pulverizing soil ii. Aerating/loosening soil iii. Remove weeds
  • A) Only i and ii
  • B) Only iii
  • C) All of the above
  • D) Only ii
85. Correct about Disc Plough? i. Cuts V-shaped furrow, no inversion ii. Turns furrow slice with scooping action iii. Breaks hard pans, less top disturbance
  • A) Only i
  • B) Only ii
  • C) Only iii
  • D) All of the above
86. Sprayer carried on the back of the operator
  • A) Rocker sprayer
  • B) Power sprayer
  • C) Knapsack sprayer
  • D) Hand sprayer
87. Hydrothermal treatment to unhulled rice to obtain gelatinized rice
  • A) Parboiling
  • B) Milling
  • C) Cleaning and Hulling
  • D) Polishing
88. Green house gases causing Global Warming? i. CO₂ ii. Methane iii. N₂O
  • A) Only i
  • B) Only i and ii
  • C) Only i and iii
  • D) All of the above
89. IC engine using spark ignition? i. Petrol Engine ii. Diesel Engine
  • A) Only i
  • B) Only ii
  • C) Both
  • D) None of the above
90. Photo Voltaic Cell (PV Cell) converts
  • A) Solar energy to electrical energy
  • B) Solar energy to chemical energy
  • C) Chemical energy to electrical energy
  • D) Electrical energy to light
91. NOT an advantage of drip irrigation
  • A) Suitable where plant population/unit area is very high
  • B) Less weed growth
  • C) Reduces evaporation/seepage loss
  • D) Suitable for water-scarce areas
92. Application of pesticides through irrigation water
  • A) Fertigation
  • B) Chemigation
  • C) Irrigation
  • D) All of the above
93. Critical stages for irrigation of Rice
  • A) Preflowering stage
  • B) Boot stage and dough stage
  • C) Initial tillering and flowering
  • D) Grain formation
94. Communication through TV is an example for
  • A) Interpersonal Communication
  • B) Mass Communication
  • C) Group Communication
  • D) Intrapersonal Communication
95. Approaches used for transfer of technology: i. Consultancy ii. Promotional iii. Participative
  • A) Only i and ii
  • B) Only ii and iii
  • C) Only i and iii
  • D) All of the above
96. Flow of information from top level to bottom in an organization
  • A) Vertical communication
  • B) Upward communication
  • C) Star communication
  • D) Horizontal communication
97. In agricultural extension, farm and home visit is an example for
  • A) Individual contact method
  • B) Group contact method
  • C) Mass contact method
  • D) None of the above
98. E-extension in agriculture uses
  • A) Internet
  • B) Multimedia learning system
  • C) Computer based training system
  • D) All of the above
99. Incorrect statement regarding agricultural extension
  • A) Extending scientific knowledge to farming community
  • B) Increase efficiency in agricultural production
  • C) It is a formal education system
  • D) Promote community/rural development
100. Limitation of Audio Visual aid
  • A) Reduce verbalism
  • B) Overcome language barrier
  • C) Speed up learning process
  • D) Reduce teacher involvement
Question Code 085/2017 — Agricultural Assistant Gr. II - Agriculture 100 questions, 100 marks, 75 minutes. Question Booklet Alpha Code A. Test held 09/08/2017.
1. Choose the correct statement:
  • A) Chattampi Swamikal is known as Bharatha Kesari
  • B) Ayyankali is called Pulaya Raja by Indira Gandhi
  • C) Vakkom Abdul Khader Maulavi is connected with Kallumala Samaram
  • D) Ananda Darsanam is associated with Kumaragurudevan
2. What is the theme of the 2017 World Intellectual Property Day?
  • A) Visionary innovators
  • B) Innovation – Improving Lives
  • C) Creating the Future today
  • D) Designing the Future
3. Mary Godwin, who wrote 'Frankenstein', is the wife of a famous poet. Who is he?
  • A) Shelley
  • B) Wordsworth
  • C) Keats
  • D) William Blake
4. The organizations known as 'Bretton Wood Twins':
  • A) IMF and IDA
  • B) IMF and MIGA
  • C) World Bank and IMF
  • D) IMF and IFC
5. The city designated as UNESCO World Book Capital 2018:
  • A) Canberra
  • B) Rome
  • C) Athens
  • D) London
6. Identify the person connected with the book 'Darsanamala':
  • A) Kumaranasan
  • B) Sree Narayanaguru
  • C) Chattampi Swamikal
  • D) Vagbhatanandan
7. Choose the wrongly matched pair regarding the Constitution of India:
  • A) Fundamental Duties - Canada
  • B) Emergency - Germany
  • C) Directive principles - Ireland
  • D) Federal Structure - USA
8. Which Indian bank has won the 2017 Golden Peacock Innovative Product/Service Award?
  • A) SBI
  • B) Union Bank of India
  • C) Yes Bank
  • D) ICICI
9. Choose the correct statement regarding the Constitution of India:
  • A) Article 61 is related to the election of Indian President
  • B) Article 214 deals with the Public Service Commission
  • C) Article 356 deals with Election Commission of India
  • D) Article 24 deals with Child Labour prohibition
10. On which date is the National Panchayati Raj Diwas celebrated in India?
  • A) May 22
  • B) April 24
  • C) May 24
  • D) April 22
11. The organization formed to protect the interest of developing nations:
  • A) G77
  • B) BRICS
  • C) G20
  • D) G7
12. The 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with
  • A) Panchayati Raj System
  • B) Union, State and Concurrent lists
  • C) The Administrations of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
  • D) 22 languages
13. Manpreet Kaur, who won Gold medal at the 2017 Asian Grand Prix Athletics in China, is associated with
  • A) Discus Throw
  • B) Long Jump
  • C) High Jump
  • D) Shot Put
14. The organization founded by Vaikunda Swamikal:
  • A) Atma Vidya Sangam
  • B) Tatwabodhini Sabha
  • C) Vidyaposhini Sabha
  • D) Samathwa Samajam
15. The Award declared by UNESCO for popularization of Science
  • A) Kalinga Prize
  • B) Heineken Prize
  • C) Kavli Prize
  • D) Kyoto Prize
16. The Haryana state government recently introduced "Kilkari" app. What is its aim?
  • A) To create awareness about Child Labour
  • B) To create awareness among pregnant women
  • C) To create awareness among school children about drugs
  • D) To create awareness about Alcohol
17. Find out the correct match from the given options:
  • A) Ente Nadukadathal - Ramakrishnapillai
  • B) Pracheena Malayalam – Sree Narayanaguru
  • C) Akhilathirattu – Ayyankali
  • D) Vedanta Saram – Vagbhatanandan
18. Who was the minister for Local Self Government in the EMS Ministry of 1957?
  • A) K C George
  • B) K P Gopalan
  • C) P K Chathan Master
  • D) T V Thomas
19. After this amendment Right to Property became a legal right
  • A) 23rd amendment
  • B) 42nd amendment
  • C) 53rd amendment
  • D) 44th amendment
20. Arrange in ascending order of year of birth: Vakkom Abdul Khader Maulavi, Sree Narayanaguru, Ayyankali, Mannath Padmanabhan:
  • A) Ayyankali, Sree Narayanaguru, Vakkom AKM, Mannath Padmanabhan
  • B) Sree Narayanaguru, Ayyankali, Vakkom AKM, Mannath Padmanabhan
  • C) Vakkom AKM, Mannath Padmanabhan, Ayyankali, Sree Narayanaguru
  • D) Sree Narayanaguru, Vakkom AKM, Mannath Padmanabhan, Ayyankali
21. Who is the father of green revolution?
  • A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
  • B) Norman E Borlaug
  • C) T.H. Morgan
  • D) Peter De-Cresenji
22. A secondary tillage implement is
  • A) Disc plough
  • B) Cultivator
  • C) Subsoiler
  • D) Basin lister
23. Soil Health Card Scheme launched by the Government of India in the year
  • A) 2015
  • B) 2012
  • C) 2010
  • D) 2006
24. The available form of water to plant is
  • A) Gravitational Water
  • B) Run away Water
  • C) Capillary Water
  • D) Hygroscopic Water
25. The component Gable of green house is
  • A) Transparent wall of green house
  • B) Transparent cover of the green house
  • C) Component supporting covering material
  • D) Supporting structure against wind
26. Which one is the type of training?
  • A) Pinching
  • B) Heading back
  • C) Disbudding
  • D) Open centre
27. Rabi crop is
  • A) Bajra
  • B) Barley
  • C) Jowar
  • D) Jute
28. Krishi Bhavan in Kerala started in the year
  • A) 1971
  • B) 1982
  • C) 1979
  • D) 1987
29. Which part of the Kasthuri manjal is used for medicinal purpose?
  • A) Tuber
  • B) Root
  • C) Rhizome
  • D) Leaves
30. Cuba is a variety of
  • A) Rose
  • B) Orchid
  • C) Jasmine
  • D) Anthurium
31. An agricultural practice in which same crop is cultivated year after year
  • A) Strip cropping
  • B) Crop rotation
  • C) Homestead farming
  • D) Mono cropping
32. An example for making edges
  • A) Alternanthera
  • B) Hamelia
  • C) Acalypha
  • D) Durantha
33. Name the propagation method most suitable for drumstick:
  • A) Softwood cuttings
  • B) Hard wood
  • C) Limb cutting
  • D) Semi hardwood
34. How many nendran banana suckers needed to cultivate one acre area of land?
  • A) 500
  • B) 1000
  • C) 2000
  • D) 2500
35. The fungus cercospora rodmani is used for
  • A) Bio control of pest
  • B) Bio control of weeds
  • C) Oil eating fungus
  • D) Nitrogen fixing fungus
36. Minimum germination percentage of cowpea
  • A) 75
  • B) 60
  • C) 70
  • D) 80
37. Golden yellow colour tag used to indicate
  • A) Registered Seed
  • B) Certified Seed
  • C) Foundation Seed
  • D) Breeder Seed
38. Symbiotic nitrogen fixing biofertilizer is
  • A) Azotobacter
  • B) Rhizobium
  • C) Clostridium
  • D) Klebsiella
39. The fertilizer potassium chloride contains
  • A) 18% of K₂O
  • B) 20% of K₂O
  • C) 60% of K₂O
  • D) 16% of K₂O
40. The element which is critical structural component of chlorophyll
  • A) Iron
  • B) Magnesium
  • C) Manganese
  • D) Cobalt
41. Crop suitable for cultivation in alkaline soils
  • A) Cotton
  • B) Citrus
  • C) Apple
  • D) Tobacco
42. According to soil texture, the soil particle range 0.02–0.2 mm comes under
  • A) Coarse sand
  • B) Fine sand
  • C) Clay
  • D) Silt
43. Intensity of sunlight is measured by using
  • A) Stevenson's screen
  • B) Sunshine recorder
  • C) Dry bulb thermometer
  • D) Lux meter
44. Select the false statement:
  • A) Tobacco is a narcotic crop
  • B) Agave is a fiber crop
  • C) Diancha is a fodder crop
  • D) Yam is a tuber crop
45. Study of grasses is called
  • A) Agronomy
  • B) Horticulture
  • C) Agro-forestry
  • D) Agrostology
46. Rice bowl of Kerala
  • A) Pattambi
  • B) Kuttanad
  • C) Kayamkulam
  • D) Mannuthy
47. Sedges belong to the family
  • A) Poaceae
  • B) Liliaceae
  • C) Cyperaceae
  • D) Asteraceae
48. Which are the following features that satisfy the herbicide Roundup? (i) Post emergent (ii) Pre emergent (iii) Selective (iv) Non selective
  • A) (i) and (iv)
  • B) (ii) and (iii)
  • C) (ii) and (iv)
  • D) (iv) only
49. An example for wetland weed
  • A) Salvinia
  • B) Emilia
  • C) Scoparia
  • D) Tridax
50. The vector of tungro disease of rice
  • A) Aphids
  • B) White flies
  • C) Green Leaf hopper
  • D) Brown plant hopper
51. Well known species Eudrillus eugineae used for
  • A) Biocontrol of salvinia
  • B) Vermicomposting
  • C) Apiculture
  • D) Sericulture
52. Japanese art form using miniature trees grown in containers
  • A) Ikebana
  • B) Moribana
  • C) Nageire
  • D) Bonsai
53. Ananthan is a
  • A) short duration variety of rice
  • B) short duration variety of oyster mushroom
  • C) bacterial wilt resistant variety of brinjal
  • D) bacterial wilt resistant variety of chilli
54. The disease KATTE is seen in
  • A) Cardamom
  • B) Banana
  • C) Rubber
  • D) Sugarcane
55. An antagonistic bacteria
  • A) AMF
  • B) Trichoderma
  • C) Aspergillus
  • D) Pseudomonas
56. Ingredients involved in chestnut compound
  • A) Copper sulphate + Lime
  • B) Sodium bicarbonate + Soap
  • C) Copper sulphate + Ammonium carbonate
  • D) Calcium carbonate + Soap
57. Ministry of Agriculture Govt. of India launched Kissan call centres on
  • A) 2004 January 21
  • B) 2004 May 1
  • C) 2005 January 21
  • D) 2005 May 1
58. The major pest of coconut Rhinoceros beetle comes under the order
  • A) Lepidoptera
  • B) Coleoptera
  • C) Hymenoptera
  • D) Orthoptera
59. Registered Society of key Stakeholders for sustainable Agricultural Development in the district?
  • A) KVK
  • B) LEADS
  • C) ATMA
  • D) SAMETI
60. The tetraterpinoid compound obtained from the neem tree
  • A) Rotenone
  • B) Pyrethrins
  • C) Azadiractin
  • D) Ryania
61. 'Miche Golledge' is a
  • A) Rubber tapping knife
  • B) Rubber Roller
  • C) Rotavator
  • D) Conoweeder
62. Which one is a contact poison?
  • A) Phorate
  • B) Sevin
  • C) Monocrotophos
  • D) Dimethoate
63. Green façade is
  • A) Bonsai
  • B) Growing medium
  • C) Aquaponics
  • D) Vertical garden
64. The commonly called white muscardine fungus is
  • A) Beauveria bassiana
  • B) Bacillus thuringiensis
  • C) Metarrhizium anisopliae
  • D) Verticillium lecanii
65. The type of propagation based on the principle of totipotency
  • A) Hi-Tech farming
  • B) Precision Farming
  • C) Micropropagation
  • D) Seed propagation
66. The signal word DANGER on the upper triangle of insecticide label indicates
  • A) Moderately Toxic
  • B) Highly Toxic
  • C) Slightly Toxic
  • D) Extremely Toxic
67. How much copper sulphate required for preparing five litres of 1% BM?
  • A) 0.5 g
  • B) 5 g
  • C) 500 g
  • D) 50 g
68. An ornamental plant suitable for approach grafting
  • A) Thuja
  • B) Chempaka
  • C) Lawsonia
  • D) Mango
69. Dried rose petals are called
  • A) Kado
  • B) Pankhuri
  • C) Potpourri
  • D) Corsage
70. Quick wilt of pepper is a
  • A) Air borne disease
  • B) Seed borne disease
  • C) Soil borne disease
  • D) Water borne disease
71. Select the disease caused by Phytophthora
  • A) Blast of Paddy
  • B) Wilt of Banana
  • C) Brown spot of Rice
  • D) Bud rot of Coconut
72. The proper order of steps in tissue culture:
  • A) Callus culture – Sterilization – Incubation – Inoculation – Sub culturing
  • B) Sterilization – Callus culture – Incubation – Inoculation – Sub culturing
  • C) Sterilization – Inoculation – Incubation – Callus culture – Sub culturing
  • D) Sterilization – Sub culturing – Inoculation – Incubation – Callus culture
73. Choose the character which is NOT applicable to a parasitoid:
  • A) Size is very small compared to host individual
  • B) Destroy host individual
  • C) Comparatively of same size as host
  • D) Host and parasite of same taxonomic class
74. Which of the following is a floating plant?
  • A) Vallisneria
  • B) Nymphaea
  • C) Nelumbo
  • D) Lemna
75. Nata-De-Coco is the value added product of
  • A) Cocoa
  • B) Coconut
  • C) Banana
  • D) Pepper
76. Bavistin is a
  • A) Inorganic fungicide
  • B) Organic fungicide
  • C) Organic insecticide
  • D) Inorganic insecticide
77. The chemical NOT used to prolong the shelf life of cut flowers
  • A) KCl
  • B) NaOH
  • C) Aluminium Sulphate
  • D) Ferric Oxide
78. An example for formal garden
  • A) Mughal garden
  • B) Lal Bagh garden
  • C) Ootty garden
  • D) Malampuzha garden
79. Optimum storage temperature of brinjal
  • A) 12–13 °C
  • B) 18–21 °C
  • C) 8–10 °C
  • D) 16–20 °C
80. IPDM means
  • A) International Programme for Disease Management
  • B) International Programme for Developing and Marketing Agriculture
  • C) Integrated Post cultivation and Disease Maintenance
  • D) Integrated Pest and Disease Management
81. Component of garden which is known as heart of garden
  • A) Pond
  • B) Rockery
  • C) Lawn
  • D) Lilly pool
82. Thai Sac brood disease is caused by
  • A) Virus
  • B) Bacteria
  • C) Fungus
  • D) Protozoa
83. Among the following, NOT an ingredient of PANCHAGAVYA:
  • A) Tender coconut water
  • B) Hand full of top soil
  • C) Jaggery
  • D) Poovan banana
84. Which one is a Bacillus thuringiensis containing biopesticide?
  • A) Niprot
  • B) Biopower
  • C) Biocure-B
  • D) Halt
85. Which of the following are correctly matched? 1. Muscardine-fungus 2. Pebrine-bacteria 3. Grasserie-virus 4. Flacherie-protozoa
  • A) 1
  • B) 2 and 4
  • C) 1 and 3
  • D) 1 and 4
86. Which of the following is NOT an aim of Good Agricultural Practices?
  • A) Ensuring safety and quality of produce in the food chain
  • B) Increase the grain production in India
  • C) Improving natural resource use
  • D) Creating new market opportunities for farmers
87. Soilless cultivation is
  • A) Hydroponics
  • B) Aquaponics
  • C) Aeroponics
  • D) All of the above
88. Non-Branching type of tapioca
  • A) Sree visakam
  • B) H-97
  • C) H-165
  • D) H-226
89. Tectona grandis is the scientific name of
  • A) Teak
  • B) Mandaram
  • C) Mangium
  • D) Veeti
90. Which of the following is correctly matched?
  • A) Keraganga – WCT × COD
  • B) Kerasankara – WCT × Gangabondam
  • C) Kerasree – WCT × MYD
  • D) Kerasoubhagya – WCT × Lakshadweep ordinary
91. A bacterial wilt resistant chilli variety
  • A) Ujwala
  • B) Jwalamukhi
  • C) Jwala
  • D) Jwalasakhi
92. The seed rate of tomato
  • A) 1 kg/ha
  • B) 800 g/ha
  • C) 400 g/ha
  • D) 1.5 kg/ha
93. General NPK recommendation of pepper g/vine/year is
  • A) 50:50:200
  • B) 140:55:275
  • C) 50:50:75
  • D) None of these
94. Uzi-fly is the major pest of
  • A) Honey bee
  • B) Oyster Mushroom
  • C) Silk worm
  • D) Paddy straw mushroom
95. The duration of Hraswa variety of rice
  • A) 75–80 days
  • B) 95–100 days
  • C) 105–110 days
  • D) 110–115 days
96. Benefit of soil solarisation:
  • A) Control of nematodes
  • B) Control of weeds
  • C) Control of fungal pathogens
  • D) All of these
97. Cardamom research station located at
  • A) Madakkathara
  • B) Anakkayam
  • C) Pampadumpara
  • D) Sreekaryam
98. Which of the following is NOT a fungal disease?
  • A) Leaf blight of paddy
  • B) Sheath blight of paddy
  • C) Brown spot of paddy
  • D) Blast of paddy
99. Which of the following is NOT a parasitoid?
  • A) Trichogramma sp
  • B) Phytophthora sp
  • C) Goniozus sp
  • D) Xanthopimpla sp
100. Select the disease NOT caused by virus:
  • A) Mosaic
  • B) Tungro
  • C) Bunchy top
  • D) Citrus canker
Previous probability list

Cutoff Marks

🎯

55.33

Previous exam cutoff (out of 100)

In the most recent probability list published for this post, the last candidate included in the main list secured 55.33 marks. Supplementary lists are prepared separately for reserved categories (SC/ST/OBC/EWS) by including sufficient candidates from lower mark ranges as per rules of reservation.

Cutoffs vary every year Cutoff marks depend on the number of applicants, vacancies and paper difficulty each year — treat this as a reference point, not a guarantee. Always check the latest official rank list on keralapsc.gov.in.
Land Use Department

Salary & Job Profile

💰 Pay scale

₹27,900 – ₹63,700

Official Kerala Government pay scale, Category 083/2026 (plus applicable DA and allowances as per Government norms).

🏛️ What the Land Use Department does

The Land Use Department's core mandate is Natural Resource Management and Biodiversity Conservation — it studies land capability, soil resources and cropping patterns to guide sustainable use of Kerala's land.

📋 Day-to-day role

🌱

Land & soil data collection

Assists in gathering field data on soil types, land capability and cropping patterns for resource mapping.

🤝

Extension & field support

Helps implement department schemes, conducts soil/crop surveys, assists local farmers with technical advice.

🔬

Technical assistance

Works alongside agricultural officers and scientific staff in preparing land utilization reports and documentation.

🗂️

Office & register maintenance

Manages routine office records, field registers and correspondence relating to land use statistics and project reports.

About this job profile This day-to-day role description is a general overview and not verbatim official KPSC/department text — actual duties are assigned by the department after appointment. Pay scale and post details above are from the official notification.
Frequently Asked Questions

FAQs — Agricultural Assistant Grade II

Quick answers to the questions candidates ask most about Category 083/2026.

What is the last date to apply for Agricultural Assistant Grade II (Category 083/2026)?

The last date to apply is 02.09.2026 (Wednesday), up to 12.00 midnight. The gazette was published on 30.07.2026. Apply online only, through One Time Registration on keralapsc.gov.in.

What is the age limit for Agricultural Assistant Grade II?

18 to 40 years — candidates must be born between 02.01.1986 and 01.01.2008 (both dates included), with usual age relaxation for SC/ST and other backward communities.

What qualification is required for Agricultural Assistant Grade II?

A Diploma in Agricultural Science from Kerala Agricultural University (KAU), or a Vocational Higher Secondary Certificate (VHSC) in Agriculture, or B.Voc./B.Sc. Agriculture (accepted as equivalent/higher qualifications).

Can VHSC Agriculture students apply?

Yes. Vocational Higher Secondary Certificate (VHSC) in Agriculture is one of the qualifications accepted for this post — as per G.O.(P) No. 11/2025/P&EA dated 08.09.2025, it's accepted in the absence of the Diploma in Agricultural Science from KAU.

What is the salary of Agricultural Assistant Grade II?

The pay scale is ₹27,900 – ₹63,700, as per the official Category 083/2026 notification, plus applicable DA and allowances.

Which department is Agricultural Assistant Grade II under?

This post (Category 083/2026) is under the Land Use Department, whose core mandate is Natural Resource Management and Biodiversity Conservation.

What is the exam pattern for Agricultural Assistant Grade II?

100 questions, 100 marks, OMR-based objective test. +1 mark for each correct answer, −0.33 mark for each wrong answer, no negative mark for unattempted questions.

Is there an application fee for Agricultural Assistant Grade II?

No. There is no application fee for this post.

Are previous question papers available for Agricultural Assistant Grade II?

Yes — the 2017 and 2024 question papers are available on this page in full, with the official answer key for each question, in the Previous Papers section.

What is the cutoff mark for Agricultural Assistant Grade II?

In the most recent probability list published for this post, the last candidate in the main list secured 55.33 marks out of 100. Cutoffs vary every year depending on applicants, vacancies and paper difficulty.

What is the probation period for Agricultural Assistant Grade II?

2 years on duty within a continuous period of 3 years. Within this period, the candidate must also pass the Manual of Office Procedure & Account Test (Lower or Higher).

How do I apply for Agricultural Assistant Grade II Category 083/2026?

Register (or log in) via One Time Registration on keralapsc.gov.in, then click "Apply Now" on the Category 083/2026 notification link. See the full step-by-step process in the Notification section above.

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